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Perfect price discrimination means that producers can charge each person their marginal value so under PPD the producer walks down the demand curve all the way to the point where the consumer values the good at just say 1 penny above MC and they charge that consumer 1 penny plus MC. If price==MC then every consumer who values the good at more than MC buys the good including the consumer who values it at 1 penny more than MC. So output is the same.
Perhaps your question is if P=MC is zero then how does the firm recoup its fixed costs? That's a good question and that's why marginal cost pricing may not work or be practical. The question was more about theory than practice! :) That is often the way it is in economics first we want to get the theory right then figure your which theory applies to which real world situation
I have a question about one of the practice questions (if I'm allowed to ask about that here).
If media producers are able to perfectly price discriminate, wouldn't output be greater than if they were able to distribute it at marginal cost instead of equal since marginal cost is zero?
What concept am I missing here?